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PostPosted: Mon May 24, 2021 6:02 pm 
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Dr. Phil

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Islamic
Shari`ah is unique as to caring to sons at the lifetime of their parents and after their death, this is demonstrated in custody, nursing, and expending on sons. Also, it obliged inheritance for them in their parents' estate which reveals how Islam pays attention for sons and their custody to provide a safe welfare life.

Taking inheritance in the Islamic Shari`ah into account, we would find that it is in line with the natural disposition, filiation is the expectation of paternity, and the instinct of possession urges man to work, earn livelihood, excel, and frequently withhold himself from enjoying his wealth to leave it for his sons to enjoy his effort after his death.

Father does all this while pleased and satisfied because the teachings of Islam enjoined on him to provide wealth for his sons to live in dignity and esteem among people.

Islam prescribes the major part in the parents' wealth for sons, it does not distinguish between males and females that it does not keep all estate for males and deprive females from it as practiced in so many legislations worldwide in recent and old times, rather Islam is fair in this regard and denies all kinds of inheritance injustice known in humanity.

Right of fetus

Jurists unanimously agreed that fetus has the right in estate if two stipulations are met:

1- Actual existence of fetus in his mother's womb at the time of devisor's death. This is can easily be recognized by determining the time of delivery since the devisor's death that is if the mother delivered the baby a month to six months after the death, the minimum period of delivery, then jurists ruled that the baby is worthy of inheritance.

2- The fetus is delivered alive, even if he made one cry, and then died, he/she would be worthy of inheritance. This is the opinion of the majority of scholars. If he/she is born dead, then inheritance is not due, even if the cause of death is a serious offense against the mother.

So long as the fetus is inside the womb, the estate shall not be finally distributed as the fetus gender or number can't yet be identified that is some of the heirs' shares vary according to the gender of the fetus. Accordingly, jurists are unanimously agreed on non-distribution to the estate until time of delivery on condition that the heirs approve it explicitly or implicitly, namely they do not claim it. This is applied to the case when the fetus has no participant heir or even if there such heir but he/she is disinherited. The point of disagreement


among jurists on this topic arises when one of the heirs asks for the distribution of the estate, thus some jurists approve distribution of the estate, others disapproved it, a third view approved distribution to some portion of the estate. The preponderant view is that of the majority of jurists which distributes the prescribed shares whose holders are not affected by any change, because delaying them until delivery would inflict harm upon them without necessity.


ماذا تفعل إذا كنت تحب الإسلام وتنتظر علامة؟ بلال فيلبس ...

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=cRYrDe-sKfI



هل يؤمن النصارى واليهود بألانبياء مثل المسلمين ؟ - ذاكر نايك Zakir Naik
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=QTNLFgJjGJY
ذاكر نايك يقولها مدوية ( لا اله الا الله ) امام هندوسي حاول ان يتحاذق
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=pz6DQLiCEFY


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PostPosted: Mon May 31, 2021 5:25 pm 
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Dr. Phil

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Some may believe that Islam wronged daughters concerning inheritance as it prescribed her a share half to her sibling, and they defame the equity of the Islamic legislations based on this false claim, and then they ask for equity between male and female in inheritance which is unfair equity as unanimously agreed upon by Muslim scholars. The wisdom behind this

distribution is clear and fair because Islam made the expenditure mandatory upon males and disburdened females from this.
Female in most cases is at the male expense in Islam, be a mother, wife, daughter, or sister, which is unlike to man who is always charged by expending on family as practiced throughout the different arenas without exception

. Man pays dowry in unlimited amount, he is charged with furnishing home and costs of livelihood. In case of divorce, he pays the period of waiting expenditure and other kinds of expenses. In this regard, sheikh Muhammad 'Abdu in his Tafsir "Al-Manar" stated the following: the wisdom behind making the share of man double to that of woman is that man is charged by expenditure on himself and his wife, so he shall receive two shares, while woman only expends on herself and when she get married her expenditure becomes mandatory on her husband.


Jehovah's Witness vs. Islam - Tear Jerking debate! - LIVE ...

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=AtSsNB9ls3s

My Journey To Islam - Jehovah's Witness To Islam - Brother Abdallah

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=JMr_1AvM0UA

Jehovah's Witness Visits Sheikh Deedat - Sheikh Ahmed Deedat

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=YD27l1cGadA


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PostPosted: Mon Jun 07, 2021 4:27 pm 
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Dr. Phil

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Taking into consideration that both Quran and Sunnah have paid much attention to setting the right of woman which has always been wronged and protected her against injustice, it would be clear that such claim is completely untrue and bias to the advantages of the Islamic Shari'ah. Some women may argue that they earn their livelihood or the husband is sick to the extent that he is unable totally or partially to provide the livelihood of the family and thus they seek equality in inheritance is void and null, because such cases are not the major rule but they are exception in societies.
Islam takes into account the nature of both man and woman that it views woman as the shepherd on her house affairs and she shall be responsible for that on the Day of Judgment.

We should be aware that Islam does not view woman as an individual, rather it views her and man as one family composed of two persons who are the basic of the whole society, she inherits one share of her devisor and her husband receives two shares of his devisor, and thus the final outcome is three shares for this family; and her brother receives two shares of her father and his wife receives one share of her devisor so that the final outcome is three shares for this other family, there is equality in inheritance.


This is a normal view as the new families are extension of the expired ones; integration is existent between man and woman in the one family whose integration leads to integration to the whole society. Thus there is ground to separate between man and woman, rather they are one entity essential to the welfare of life on earth.
Based on the aforementioned, it becomes clear that Islam does not view woman from the gender perspective concerning inheritance; rather it views her from the social status perspective and the economic burdens she bears as well.


What Is Wisdom? - Sheikh Ahmed Deedat - YouTube
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ocPoSunGpKw


very cool
جميلة جولى حاولت تنصير صديقتها المسلمة وبعد إلحاح وافقت صديقتها ولكن بشرط واحد

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=4Sdt8QpXiGA


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PostPosted: Mon Jun 14, 2021 4:43 pm 
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Dr. Phil

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Why are two women witnesses equivalent to only one man?



This question is asked my by many people even by Muslims who don’t have sufficient knowledge about their religion as they consider it as injustice and inequality in Islam concerning woman.

It is not true that two female witnesses are always considered as equal to only one male witness. It is true only certain cases like financial transaction. However, Islam accepts a woman’s testimony as equal to that of a man. In fact, the woman’s testimony can even invalidate the man’s.

The woman’s testimony can even invalidate the man’s. If a man accuses his wife of unchastity, he is required by Quran to swear five times as evidence of the wife is guilt. If the wife denies and swears similarly five times, she is not considered guilty and in either case the marriage is dissolved. God, Almighty, said: “And for those who launch a charge against their spouses, and have (in support) no evidence but their own, their solitary evidence (can be received) if they bear witness four times (with an oath) by God that they are solemnly telling the truth; and the fifth (oath) (should be) that they solemnly invoke the curse of God on themselves if they tell a lie. But it would avert the punishment from the wife, if she bears witness four times (with an oath) By God, that (her husband) is telling a lie; and the fifth (oath) should be that she solemnly invokes the wrath of God on herself if (her accuser) is telling the truth.”(chapter 24: verse 6- 9)

In other cases, women’s testimony is more valid than men. In case of breastfeeding, she is the only one and the more valid to claim that this person is your brother or sister foster. The woman maid is the only who may claim that this boy is the son of certain lady or not. Another example from Prophet Mohammed’s era is the solitary witness of Lady Aisha, prophet’s wife, is a reliable source for many men and women to take Hadiths, the saying of the prophet, as an authentic one. Lady Aisha (may Allah be pleased with her) has narrated no less than 2220 Hadiths (the saying of the prophet) which are considered authentic only on her solitary evidence. This is sufficient proof that one witness of a woman can also be accepted.

ركن المتحدثين الداعية محمد حجاب و زائرين فى الهايد

بارك مترجم

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=uEcLgX8EL4E&t=79s

Why are 2 witnesses who are women, equivalent to only 1 ...

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CMfWZbOJBrs


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PostPosted: Mon Jun 21, 2021 5:01 pm 
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Dr. Phil

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see here

مواجهة عاصفة بين صحفية استرالية مسلمة وبين مستوطنة اسرائيلية تنتهي بالضربة القاضية !!
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yv2mpd0RuD4
كنّة تونى بلير تحكى قصة إسلامها فى غزة وإحتجازها فى معبر رفح بسبب المساعدات

Tony Blair's daughter-in-law tells the story of her conversion to Islam in Gaza and her detention at the Rafah crossing because of aid
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Ns8wFnYbP8Q

محمد حجاب غاضباً: إسرا*ئيل ابنة زنا في حواره مع يهود 1/2
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=kCSOrKwaxwk
2/2 نحن نكره الصه*اينة كما يكرهوننا ولن نسكت | محمد حجاب في حوار مع يهودي
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IVzNH6XbrGo


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PostPosted: Mon Jun 28, 2021 4:11 pm 
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Dr. Phil

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Posts: 242
why does two female equal one male in financial transaction? Are women inferior to men? Do women have weaker memories than men?

In this scientific age, we explore the significance of this legislation. Actually, this injunction is in perfect harmony with the nature and psychology of the woman as seen in psychologists, psychiatrists, and medical research.

As women, we are aware of the cyclical psychological strains that a woman has to encounter every month. The symptoms during early pregnancy, ante- natal, post- natal, depression, the phenomenon of menopause, the physiological and psychological problems due to infertility and the problems faced after miscarriage.

It is under these situations that women can experience extraordinary psychological strains giving rise to depression, lack of concentration, slow- mindedness and short term memory loss. Psychiatry in practice, April 1983 issue states: “Forty percent of women suffer from pre- menstrual syndrome…..”

The length review portrays how female behavior is affected in these situations. In the pre- menstrual syndrome: C. Shreeves writes: “Reduced powers of concentration and memory are familiar aspects of the pre- menstrual syndrome…..”


This doesn’t mean, of course, that women are mentally deficient absolutely. “Reduced powers of concentration and memory are familiar aspects of the pre- menstrual syndrome and can only be remedied by treating the underlying complaint." This does not mean, of course, that women are mentally deficient absolutely. It just means that their mental faculties can become affected at certain times in the biological cycle. Shreeves also writes: "As many as 80 percent of women are aware of some degree of pre-menstrual changes, 40 percent are substantially disturbed by them, and between 10 and 20 percent are seriously disabled as a result of the syndrome.”

We read in Psychological Medicine: "Many studies have reported an increased likelihood of various negative affects during the pre-menstrual period. In this affective category are many emotional designations including irritability, depression, tension, anxiety, sadness, insecurity, lethargy, loneliness, tearfulness, fatigue, restlessness and changes of mood. In the majority of studies, investigators have found it difficult to distinguish between various negative affects, and only a few have allowed themselves to be excessively concerned with the differences which might or might not exist between affective symptoms." Psychological Medicine, Monograph Supplement 4, 1983, Cambridge University Press, p.6.

Post- natal depression


There are considerable sleep difficulties. The mothers lose interest in the things they enjoyed prior to the baby's birth, and find that their concentration is impaired. They often feel irrational guilt, and blame themselves for being 'bad' wives and mothers. Fifty percent of these women are not identified as having a depressive illness. Unfortunately, many of them do not understand what ails them and blame their husbands, their babies or themselves until the relationships are strained to an alarming degree." Psychiatry in Practice, May, 1987, p.18

Menopause


This phase in a woman's life can start at any time from the mid-thirties to the mid-fifties and can last for as long as 15 years. In this phase, many women pass with many various psychological changes that may affect their mental capabilities.

It is in light of the above findings of psychologist, psychiatrists and researchers, we find the significance of this ruling as God who is the creator of men and women and He is the All-Knowing of their physical, mental, and physiological differences.
\\\\ Women's Rights in Islam: Subjugation or Liberation? | ...

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_lgptvKE9rw

Women in Islam, Liberated or Subjugated? - AbdurRaheem ...

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=K1suNCpa6Dc


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PostPosted: Mon Jul 05, 2021 5:12 pm 
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Dr. Phil

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In fact, slavery was prevalent throughout the world before the advent of Islam. Slaves were part of the social and psychological system.


What are the rights of slaves in Islam and in the non-Muslim countries?


1-In non-Muslim countries slaves almost have no rights:
a-They are treated as a commodity or merchandise; they are considered property to their owner.
b-They are forced to do toiled (hard) work in the field from dawn to sunset.
c-They get little portion of food just to live.
d-They sleep in groups and cells and most of time they are tied.
F-Slave girls are exposed to violence and rape.



2- In Islam, slaves are considered as citizens having all rights of citizenship:

• In Islam, all Muslims are brothers as they have a common descent. The Prophet, peace be upon him, said: "you are sons of Adam and Adam was created from clay"

• In Islam, all people are equal, as the Prophet, peace be upon him, said:

"You should know that no Arab is superior over a non-Arab and, non-Arab is superior over any Arab, no white is superior over black and no black is superior over white. Superiority is by righteousness and God-fearing (alone)."

• In Islam, fraternity joins all Muslims, Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) said:"Your servant and your slaves are you brothers. Anyone who has slaves should give them from what he eats and wears. He should not charge them with work beyond their capabilities. If you must set them to hard work, in any case I advise you to help them."

• In Islam, slaves are protected even from verbal abusing, the prophet (PBUH) said:"Not one of you should (when introducing someone) say ‘this is my slave’,’this is my concubine’. He should call them ‘my daughter’ or ‘my son’ or ‘my brother’."


• There were, in addition, strict principels enforced as a law: the Prophet (pbuh) said: "Whosoever kills his slave, he shall be killed, whosoever imprisons his slave and starves him, he shall be imprisoned and starved himself."

• Beside such sanctions, which made the master behave with care, the slave also enjoys the legal right to earn money and hold property independently of his master, the right to keep his religion and to have a family life with the attendant rights and obligations.
• Finally, the slave has the right to buy his freedom (the master has not the right in this case to reject the slave’s request for freedom).

Islam and Slavery - By Dr. Zakir Naik - YouTube

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=-15no-m0jn4



Choice Of Freedom For Slaves - YouTube

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=666iLYApCt8


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PostPosted: Mon Jul 26, 2021 3:59 pm 
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Dr. Phil

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Why didn't Islam prohibit slavery by a ruling like Abraham Lincoln's Emancipation Proclamation?

Truthfully, if we want to talk about this issue, we have to talk about how slavery was banned in America.
Abraham Lincoln was one of the great presidents of America who issued the Emancipation proclamation in 1863 to abolish slavery. It freed 4 million black slaves which led to quake the society. This resulted in a civil war that lasted for 5 years and left 500,000 dead and 500,000 injured. And one million out of four died out of sick or hunger for they could not afford themselves.
Later in 1865, The Thirteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution outlaws slavery and involuntary servitude, except as punishment for a crime.
Then number of amendments granted the slaves citizenship and right to vote, but it was not applied.
In 1879, in what known as Kansas exodus, the United States witnessed a mass immigration of the black Americans who escaped discrimination.
In 1896 the Racial segregation was applied.
The years between 1945 and 1970 witnessed a lot of struggles and civil movements.
Despite all these efforts, racism still exists in the United States till nowadays.

Slavery exists nowadays in various countries in many forms (women - children trafficking - legalizing prostitution - the red light districts are prevalent in USA, some European & Far East countries - illegal trade of human organs)

So, it is apparent that solving issues which are so ingrained in society in such an abrupt manner can have several adverse effects. As we see that 150 years after the abolition of slavery, Black people still could not sit next to white people on public buses.
This is because of the way Mrs. Lincoln and his followers fixed the problem of slavery. He did not realize that slavery is just a symptom, while the disease itself is Racism. And this is the most dangerous thing, treating the symptom instead of treating the disease itself.

On the contrary, Islam offered the right solution for the problem of slavery. It took drastic measures and radical solution to uproot racism which was a social malady. At the same time, Islam got rid of slavery in a gradual manner, without shaking the foundation of society. This is why we have no slaves, but in America there are still because they have racism.
Islam is the Solution of Racism by Ahmed Deedat - YouTube

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=fcJodyJqIDM

Freely Speaking With Ginna Lewis - Sheikh Ahmed Deedat ...

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=iXSNu1CXkJ0


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PostPosted: Tue Aug 03, 2021 4:54 pm 
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Dr. Phil

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Why did the Prophet Muhammad have several wives
The Prophet of Islam (pbuh) facing his detractors
There is not a person in history who has been attacked as much as the Prophet Muhammad was, he was attacked in his life and even after his death, Yet a sincere reading in his life proves that everything his words say. detractors is just a lie,

here are some quotes (from Westerners):
Alphonse de Lamartine: Was this man an impostor? We don't think so after carefully studying its history.
Annie Besant: one of the great Messengers of the Supreme Being.
Georges Bernard Shaw: “I studied - the wonderful man - and in my opinion, he deserves the title of savior of humanity. "

The prophet is therefore the target of anti-Islam attacks, the goal of his detractors is to distort his image to hide the marvelous character of the prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, in what follows you will find the answer to their lies that many do not cease to repeat without knowing that they are insulting the man whom God loves the most:


Why did the Prophet Muhammad have several wives

Now they are trying to say, the prophet married several women so according to them he is a man of desire ... But let's take a closer look at these marriages and find out where this "desire" is:
Before the first marriage:

The prophet remained 25 years without getting married, everyone recognized in him modesty and respect and that he never approached fornication despite the fact that the means were very available in his time, especially for a young man!
Despite all of this the prophet never made a mistake, or is the desire they are talking about?

The first marriage:
When he was 25 the prophet did not go looking for the young virgin who would be more attractive to pleasure seekers, The prophet's first wife was a 40-year-old widow, is this the choice of a young person? 25-year-old who they think would be thirsty for desire? in addition it is known that it is khadija who chose him after having touched in him his veracity and his honesty.

25 years with only one woman!
Prophet Muhammad lived 25 years with his wife Khadija who was 15 years older than him, until she died, and even after her death he still considered her to be his beloved wife, do these detractors find any reason? fierce desire in all of this?


Other women (after their fifties):

the other marriages of the prophet were only either to strengthen a friendship or to help a poor widow Some examples:
• Saudah Bint Zam’a was a very old widow. The prophet married her when she was 50 years old and provided for her.
• Aisha was the daughter of his dearest friend Abu Bakr, this helped to strengthen their friendship, which was customary.

• Oum-Salma bint Abi Umayyah was a widow and had 4 small children. The prophet married her and took care of her and her children. She was 29 years old.
These are just a few examples of the prophet's charitable character. As you can see, marrying 40 and 50-year-old women doesn't really correspond to the behavior of a man who is bitter with desire.

Former prophets and kings of the Bible
They had more than one wife

Why did the Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) marry many wives. ...
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=5cRE_Gf-17Q

حوار ماتع مع باحثيْن عن الحق - الجزء الأول

1
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=zjVSpdZQW2g&t=9s
2
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=fhWsId-2SRE
3
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=y6PoJ5A8tXc&t=14s


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